If two people sign a contract (male and female), the contract states, both parties cannot date for one year, and both of them can only have intercourse with each other, and both parties cannot accuse each other of physical and mental abuse.

Then if one party accuse's another of abuse, can the contact be used in court, and if not, why? if its a signed legal document

-- naveen (naveen@4nse.com), November 22, 2003

Answers

My question is WTF??????? Why would someone have an agreement like that anyway? Dating... not married. Heck, even in divorces people do not have contracts like that.

-- Tania (nrthnkattz9@peoplepc.com), January 08, 2004.