I wonder if the facts that:

1. Jews used instruments in the 1st century.

2. Neither Jesus, apostles, nor early christians had a problem with it when they worshipped with Jews

have any enlightenment for us today?

Also, if it is true that the accapella heresy originated with John Calvin, is it not ironic that protestants, his grandchildren of the faith(only) do not have it incorporated into their theology?

-- Anonymous, December 11, 2001

Answers

Bob.....you stated a number of things in your last post that are just plain....well...they are wrong.

You state......"A Capella originated with the Catholic Church in the 1500s."

Completely false. Have you never heard of the Gregorian Chants which date to the third century?? What about antiphonal (sp??) singing where the ldeader sings a phrase and the congregation repeats it??

You then state..."The current belief that musical instruments are unauthorized began with Alexander Campbell in the 1860s-70s."

Actually......Calvin taught it before Campbell.

Lastly you state...."The New Testament Church used musical instruments in worship and we still do. "

We do not know that at all. We do not know that they did not use instruments either. In fact, very little historical evidence exists to state exactly what they did do in worship.

I believe the "non" argument has enough holes in it that we do not need to resort to faulty history.

Thanks!

The current belief that musical instruments are unauthorized began with Alexander Campbell in the 1860s-70s. The New Testament Church used musical instruments in worship and we still do.

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

Mark.....

I've never really paid attention to the Orthodox church's view on the instrument. Did not know they had one really. Always paid more attention to their stand on the need for immersion.....even of infants.

However....John is on to something. These are the same people that argued with RCC about 2 dimensional vs. 3 dimensional icons in the sanctuary. :)

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

A Capella originated with the Catholic Church in the 1500s. The current belief that musical instruments are unauthorized began with Alexander Campbell in the 1860s-70s. The New Testament Church used musical instruments in worship and we still do.

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

Danny,

Doesn't the Orthodox church believe instruments are not authorized, and don't they trace this belief back much further than the 1860's?

Not that I'm taking the acapella side :)

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

The Orthodox church also makes you stand for six hour services, they don't believe in pews either. Anyone want to go back to that?

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

My computer must be orthodox ... I have 2D icons on my desktop ;)

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

From the Encyclopedia Britannica: Volume 1 page 1;" a cappella (Italian;"in the style of the church"), ...The a capella (sic) style arose about the time of the composer Josquine des Prez, in the late 15th century, and reached preeminence with Palestrina in the late 16th century in the music that he wrote for the Sistine Chapel of the Vatican. Because no independent instrumental parts were writtem, later scholars assumed that the choir sang unaccompanied, but the evidence is now that an organ or other instruments exactly "doubled" some or several of the vocal parts. By the 17th century, a cappella music was giving way to the cantata, for which parts were written specifically for instruments as well as for voices."

We know that the New Testament Church sang songs accompanied with instruments because Paul said in 1Cor 14:26:"...everyone of you hath a psalm..." The word psalm comes from the greek word psalmos which is defined "to sing with the accompaniment of musical instruments." We have a historical precidence. In regard to the modern beginnings of a cappella, yes, it was Alexander Campbell who indoctrinated the use of a cappella. My Grandfather, Samual H. Kimball was a minister of the Diciples of Christ, who broke off from the Church of Christ in a dispute over this very issue. This is his explanation of the issue.

-- Anonymous, December 13, 2001

"Actually......Calvin taught it before Campbell." If Calvin taught it, then does it border on heresy?

-- Anonymous, December 14, 2001